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Showing posts with label ugc net solved paper June 2014. Show all posts
Showing posts with label ugc net solved paper June 2014. Show all posts

December 23, 2014

UGC NET Solved Paper -1 June 2014 Computer Science

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31. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban areas       (B) run-off from agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents           (D) industrial effluents
32. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving
(A) eruption of large amount of material  (B) strong winds
(C) strong water waves                          (D) strong winds and water waves
33. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 °C to 2 °C    (B) 2.0 °C to 3.5 °C
(C) 0.5 °C to 1.0 °C (D) 0.25 °C to 0.5 °C
34. National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
(A) Environment  (B) Water Resources (C) Home Affairs (D) Defence
35. Match List – I and List – II and select correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I            List – II
a. Flood         1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
b. Drought     2. Tremors produced by passage of vibratory waves through rocks of earth
c.Earthquake 3. A vent through which molted substances come out
d. Volcano     4. Excess rain and uneven distribution of water
Codes :
                 a        b        c          d
(A) 4      1        2          3
(B) 2      3        4          1
(C) 3     4        2          1
(D) 4     3        1          2
36. Which one of the following green house gases has shortest residence time in atmosphere ?
(A) Chlorofluorocarbon (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Methane (D) Nitrous oxide
37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.
iv. The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes :
(A) i and ii    (B) i, ii and iii    (C) ii and iii    (D) i and iv
38. Who among the following is the de facto executive head of the Planning Commission ?
(A) Chairman (B) Deputy Chairman (C) Minister of State for Planning  (D) Member Secretary
39. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A) Union List  (B) State List  (C) Concurrent List  (D) Residuary Powers
40. Which of the following are Central Universities ?
1. Pondicherry University         2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal University   4. Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3  (B) 1, 3 and 4   (C) 2, 3 and 4   (D) 1, 2 and 4
41. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes :
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.       (B) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong. (D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ?
(A) Assam University (B) Delhi University (C) Hyderabad University (D) Pondicherry University
43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University ?
1. Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive  Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
4. The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4   (B) 1, 3 and 4    (C) 1, 2 and 3  (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A) Students asking questions            (B) Maximum attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop silence in the classroom (D) Students taking notes
45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture   (B) Discussion  (C) Demonstration  (D) Narration
46. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder (B) behavioural disorder (C) reading disorder (D) writing disorder
47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET  (B) Consortium for Educational Communication
(C) National Knowledge Commission (D) Indira Gandhi National Open University
48. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective   (B) cognitive   (C) affective   (D) selective
49. Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A) Peter Haggett (B) Von Thunen (C) Thomas Kuhn (D) John K. Wright
50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(A) the appendix (B) a separate chapter (C) the concluding chapter (D) the text itself
51. A thesis statement is
(A) an observation (B) a fact (C) an assertion (D) a discussion
52. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm    (B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm     (D) interpretative paradigm
53. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling ?
(A) Simple random  (B) Purposive  (C) Systematic  (D) Stratified ü
54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.
(A) Placement (B) Diagnostic (C) Formative (D) Summative
55. The research stream of immediate application is
(A) Conceptual research (B) Action research (C) Fundamental research  (D) Empirical research
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60 :
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’ above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, atleast  before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy. Modern Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India’s famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.
56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a    geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social integration of all groups
(D) Cultural assimilation of all social groups.
57. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight
(A) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.
(B) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on religion.
58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian ‘Secularism’ ?
(A) No discrimination on religious considerations(B) Total indifference to religion
(C) No space for social identity      (D) Disregard for social law
59. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired by
(A) Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality in India.
(D) European perception of Indian State.
60. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of Utopian State (B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values (D) Absence of Bigotry

UGC NET Solved Paper-I June 2014

                                                                  SET-W                                     NEXT-->
1. Break-down in verbal communication is described as
(A) Short circuit (B) Contradiction (C) Unevenness (D) Entropy
2. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
(A) Technological theory    (B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory  (D) Information theory
3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan Johar (B) Amir Khan (C) Asha Bhonsle (D) Gulzar
4. Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish (B) secure (C) decode (D) change
5. The grains that appear on television set when operated are also referred to as
(A) sparks (B) green dots (C) snow (D) rain drops
6. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is
(A) noise (B) audience (C) criticality (D) feedback
7. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of ` 7, ` 8, ` 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19 (B) 20 (C) 23 (D) 29
8. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE ?
(A) OMESUCEM      (B) OMESICSM        (C) OMESICEM        (D) OMESISCM
9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, .... is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series ?
(A) 31 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 35
10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ...........by choosing one of the following option given :
(A) TS (B) ST (C) RS (D) SR
11. A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house ?
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km (C) 5 km (D) 6 km
12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written ?
(A) 32 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 38
13. “If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength.” The argument put above may be called as
(A) Analogical (B) Deductive (C) Statistical (D) Causal
14. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment.
15. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but can not both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called
(A) contradictory (B) contrary (C) subcontrary (D) subaltern
16. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).Premises :
(a) All dogs are mammals.  (b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions :
(i) No cats are mammals.  (ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.        (iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes :
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)
17. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each other. The circle A represents the class of Indians, the circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.
UGC NET Solved Paper-I June 2014

Codes :
(A) q and s only   (B) s only  (C) s and r only  (D) p, q and s only
Read the following table carefully.Based upon this table answer question from 18 to 22 :
Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand Hectares)
UGC NET Solved Paper-I June 2014

18. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A) Government canals (B) Private canals (C) Tanks (D) Other sources
19. Find out the source of Irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement
in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government canals            (B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and other wells (D) Other sources
20. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate ?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01 (C) 2003-04 (D) 2005-06
21. Identify the source of Irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
(A) Government canals            (B) Private canals
(C) Tube wells and other wells (D) Other sources
22. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A) 1998-99 (B) 2000-01 (C) 2002-03 (D) 2004-05
23. The acronym FTP stands for
(A) File Transfer Protocol    (B) Fast Transfer Protocol
(C) File Tracking Protocol    (D) File Transfer Procedure
24. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG (B) GIF (C) BMP (D) GUI
25. The first web browser is
(A) Internet Explorer (B) Netscape (C) World Wide Web (D) Firefox
26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM (B) ROM (C) CD-ROM (D) TCP
27. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three ?
(A) MAC address (B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address (D) IP address
28. Identify the IP address from the following :
(A) 300 × 215 × 317 × 3   (B) 302 × 215@ 417 × 5
(C) 202 × 50 × 20 × 148   (D) 202 – 50 – 20 – 148

29. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 × 106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A) 54 million metric tons      (B) 540 million metric tons
(C) 5400 million metric tons  (D) 2400 million metric tons
30. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent time?

(A) Paris  (B) London  (C) Los Angeles  (D) Beijing

October 30, 2014

UGC NET Previous Solved Paper-III June 2014

26. Which one of the following is not a Client-Server application ?
(A) Internet chat     (B) Web browser     (C) E-mail        (D) Ping
27. Which of the following concurrency protocol ensures both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock :
I. 2-phase locking                     II. Time phase ordering
(A) Both I & II       (B) II only         (C) I only             (D) Neither I nor II
28. Match the following :
       List – I                                        List – II
a.   Expert systems                          i. Pragmatics
b.   Planning                                    ii. Resolution
c.   Prolog                                       iii. Means-end analysis
d. Natural language processing         iv. Explanation facility
Codes :
         a      b      c      d
(A)   iii      iv      i       ii
(B)   iii      iv      ii      i
(C)   i       ii       iii      iv
(D)   iv     iii       ii      i
29. STRIPS addresses the problem of efficiently representing and implementation of a planner. It is not related to which one of the following ?
(A) SHAKEY        (B) SRI              (C) NLP              (D) None of these
30. Slots and facets are used in
(A) Semantic Networks        (B) Frames       (C) Rules      (D) All of these
31. Consider f(N) = g(N) + h(N) Where function g is a measure of the cost of getting from the start node to the current node N and h is an estimate of additional cost of getting from the current node N to the goal node. Then f(N) = h(N) is used in which one of the following algorithms ?
(A) A* algorithm                                   (B) AO* algorithm
(C) Greedy best first search algorithm    (D) Iterative A* algorithm
32. ________predicate calculus allows quantified variables to refer to objects in the domain of discourse and not to predicates or functions.
(A) Zero-order (B) First-order  (C) Second-order (D) High-order
33. ________ is used in game trees to reduce the number of branches of the search tree to be traversed without affecting the solution.
(A)Best first search (B)Goal stack planning (C)Alpha-beta pruning procedure (D)Min-max search
34. Consider a uniprocessor system where new processes arrive at an average of five processes per minute and each process needs an average of 6 seconds of service time. What will be the CPU utilization ?
(A) 80 %       (B) 50 %        (C) 60 %       (D) 30 %
35. Consider a program that consists of 8 pages (from 0 to 7) and we have 4 page frames in the physical memory for the pages. The page reference string is : 1 2 3 2 5 6 3 4 6 3 7 3 1 5 3 6 3 4 2 4 3 4 5 1  The number of page faults in LRU and optimal page replacement algorithms are respectively (without including initial page faults to fill available page frames with pages) :
(A) 9 and 6      (B) 10 and 7        (C) 9 and 7      (D) 10 and 6
36. Which of the following statements is not true about disk-arm scheduling algorithms ?
(A) SSTF (shortest seek time first) algorithm increases performance of FCFS.
(B) The number of requests for disk service are not influenced by file allocation method.
(C) Caching the directories and index blocks in main memory can also help in reducing disk arm movements.
(D) SCAN and C-SCAN algorithms are less likely to have a starvation problem.
37. _________ maintains the list of free disk blocks in the Unix file system.
(A) I-node         (B) Boot block       (C) Super block      (D) File allocation table
38. A part of Windows 2000 operating system that is not portable is
(A) Device Management             (B) Virtual Memory Management
(C) Processor Management        (D) User Interface
39. Match the following with reference to Unix shell scripts :
          List – I         List – II
a.       $?             i. File name of the current script
b.       $#            ii. List of arguments
c.       $0            iii. The number of arguments
d.       $*            iv. Exit status of last command
      Codes :
         a      b     c      d
(A)    iii     ii      i       iv
(B)    ii      iii     i       iv
(C)    iv     iii     i       ii
(D)    i       iii     i      iv
40. The advantage of _______ is that it can reference memory without paying the price of having a full memory address in the instruction.
(A)Direct addressing (B)Indexed addressing (C)Register addressing (D)Register Indirect addressing
41. The reverse polish notation equivalent to infix expression ((A + B) * C + D)/(E + F + G)
(A) A B + C * D + EF + G + /          (B) A B + C D * + E F + G + /
(C) A B + C * D + E F G + +/          (D) A B + C * D + E + F G + /
42. The output of a sequential circuit depends on
(A) present input only                      (B) past input only
(C) both present and past input        (D) past output only
43. A byte addressable computer has a memory capacity of 2m Kbytes and can perform 2n operations. An instruction involving 3 operands and one operator needs a maximum of
(A) 3m bits        (B) m + n bits   (C) 3m + n bits      (D) 3m + n + 30 bits
44. Which of the following flip-flops is free from race condition ?
(A)T flip-flop (B)SR flip-flop (C)Master-slave JK flip-flop (D)None of the above
45. One of the main features that distinguish microprocessor from micro-computers is 
(A) words are usually larger in microprocessors.(B) words are shorter in microprocessors.
(C) microprocessor does not contain I/O devices.(D) None of the above.
46. The output generated by the LINUX command :  $ seq 1 2 10 will be
(A) 1 2 10   (B) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10     (C) 1 3 5 7 9       (D) 1 5 10
47. All the classes necessary for windows programming are available in the module :
(A) win.txt     (B) win.main     (C) win.std      (D) MFC
48. Windows 32 API supports
(A) 16-bit Windows  (B) 32-bit Windows (C) 64-bit Windows (D) All of the above
49. Superficially the term “objectoriented”, means that, we organize software as a
(A) collection of continuous objects that incorporates both data structure and behaviour.
(B) collection of discrete objects that incorporates both discrete structure and behaviour.
(C) collection of discrete objects that incorporates both data structure and behaviour.
(D) collection of objects that incorporates both discrete data structure and behaviour.
50. The “part-whole”, or “a-part-of”, relationship in which objects representing the components of something associated with an object representing the entire assembly is called as 
(A) Association  (B) Aggregation   (C) Encapsulation  (D) Generalisation
51. The pure object oriented programming language with extensive metadata available and modifiable at run time is
(A) Small talk        (B) C++        (C) Java         (D) Eiffel
52. Match the following interfaces of Java. Servlet package :
      List – I                  List – II
a.   Servlet Config       i. Enables Servlets to log events
b.   Servlet Context     ii. Read data from a client
c.   Servlet Request     iii. Write data to a client
d.   Servlet Response  iv. To get initialization parameters
      Codes :
      a       b        c        d
(A) iii      iv        ii         i
(B) iii      ii         iv        i
(C) ii      iii         iv        i
(D) iv     i          ii         iii
53. The syntax of capturing events method for document object is
(A) CaptureEvents()                     (B) CaptureEvents(Orgs eventType)
(C) CaptureEvents(eventType)      (D) CaptureEvents(eventVal)
54. Linking to another place in the same or another w ebpage require two A (Anchor) tags, the first with the ________ attribute and the second with the _________ attribute.
(A) NAME & LINK    (B) LINK & HREF (C) HREF & NAME (D) TARGET & VALUE
55. Given an image of size 1024 × 1024 pixels in which intensity of each pixel is an 8-bit quality. It requires _______ of storage space if the image is not compressed.
(A) one Terabyte  (B) one Megabyte  (C) 8 Megabytes  (D) 8 Terabytes
56. Match the following cryptographic algorithms with their design issues :
     List – I           List – II
a.  DES            i. Message Digest
b.  AES            ii. Public Key
c.  RSA            iii. 56-bit key
d.  SHA-1        iv. 128-bit key
       Codes :
      a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) iii i iv ii
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv i ii iii
57. Consider a code with five valid code words of length ten :
0000000000, 0000011111, 1111100000, 1110000011, 1111111111
Hamming distance of the code is  (A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 9
58. Which of the following special cases does not require reformulation of the problem in order to obtain a solution ?
(A) Alternate optimality  (B) Infeasibility  (C) Unboundedness  (D) All of the above
59. The given maximization assignment problem can be converted into a minimization problem by
(A) subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column.
(B) subtracting each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table.
(C) adding each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column.
(D) adding maximum value of the table to each entry in the table.
60. The initial basic feasible solution of the following transportion problem :
then the minimum cost is
UGC NET Previous Solved Paper-III June 2014
(A) 76 (B) 78  (C) 80 (D) 82
61. Given the following equalities :
E1 : nK+Î + nK lg n = q(nK+Î) for all
fixed K and Î, K > 0 and Î > 0.
E2 : n32n + 6n23n = O(n32n)
Which of the following is true ?
(A) E1 is correct and E2 is correct.      (B) E1 is correct and E2 is not correct.
(C) E1 is not correct and E2 is correct.(D) E1 is not correct and E2 is not correct.
62. Consider the fractional knapsack instance n = 4, (p1, p2, p3, p4) = (10,10, 12, 18), (w1, w2, w3, w4) = (2, 4,6, 9) and M = 15. The maximum profit is given by (Assume p and w denotes profit and weight of objects respectively)
(A) 40 (B) 38 (C) 32 (D) 30
63. The solution of the recurrence relation of T(n) = 3T



floor



n
4
+ n is
(A) O(n2) (B) O(nlg n)
(C) O(n) (D) O(l g n)
64. If h is chosen from a universal collection of hash functions and is used to hash n keys into a table of size m, where n < m, the expected number of collisions involving a particular key K is
(A) less than 1   (B) less than lg n  (C) greater than 1  (D) greater than lg n
65. Given the following statements :
S1 : The subgraph-isomorphism problem takes two graphs G1 and G2 and asks whether G1 is a subgraph of G2.
S2 : The set-partition problem takes as input a set S of numbers and asks whether the numbers can be partitioned into two sets A and
–A
= S – A such that
x
x Î A
=
x
x Î
–A
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is NP problem and S2 is P problem. (B) S1 is NP problem and S2 is NP problem.
(C) S1 is P problem and S2 is P problem.    (D) S1 is P problem and S2 is NP problem.
66.
UGC NET Previous Solved Paper-III June 2014
67. Ten signals, each requiring 3000 Hz, are multiplexed on to a single channel using FDM. How much
minimum bandwidth is required for the multiplexed channel ? Assume that the guard bands are 300 Hz
wide.
(A) 30,000    (B) 32,700   (C) 33,000  (D) None of the above
68. A terminal multiplexer has six 1200 bps terminals and ‘n’ 300 bps terminals connected to it. If the outgoing line is 9600 bps, what is the value of n ?
(A) 4        (B) 8      (C) 16       (D) 28
69. Which of the following is used in the options field of IPv4 ?
(A) Strict source routing (B) Loose source routing (C) time stamp (D) All of the above
70. Which layers of the OSI reference model are host-to-host layers ?
(A) Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
(B) Network, Transport, Session, Presentation
(C) Data-link, Network, Transport, Session
(D) Physical, Data-link, Network, Transport
71. A network on the Internet has a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. What is the maximum number of hosts it can handle ?
(A) 1024       (B) 2048      (C) 4096          (D) 8192
72. Four bits are used for packed sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a computer network. What is the maximum window size ?
(A) 4        (B) 8        (C) 15         (D) 16
73. Given the following two grammars :
G1 : S -> AB | aaB
A -> a | Aa
B -> b
G2 : S -> a S b S | b S a S |
Which statement is correct ?
(A) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is unambiguous. (B) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is ambiguous.
(C) G1 is ambiguous and G2 isunambiguous.     (D) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is ambiguous.
74. Match the following :

UGC NET Previous Solved Paper-III June 2014
75. Given the following two languages :
UGC NET Previous Solved Paper-III June 2014
Which statement is correct ?
(A) Both L1 and L2 are not deterministic.
(B) L1 is not deterministic and L2 is deterministic.
(C) L1 is deterministic and L2 is not deterministic.
(D) Both L1 and L2 are deterministic.