ugc: 2014-10-26

October 30, 2014

UGC NET Previous Solved Paper-III June 2014

<<Back

26. Which one of the following is not a Client-Server application ?

(A) Internet chat (B) Web browser (C) E-mail (D) Ping

27. Which of the following concurrency protocol ensures both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock :

I. 2-phase locking II. Time phase ordering

(A) Both I & II (B) II only (C) I only (D) Neither I nor II

28. Match the following :

List – I List – II

a. Expert systems i. Pragmatics

b. Planning ii. Resolution

c. Prolog iii. Means-end analysis

d. Natural language processing iv. Explanation facility

Codes :

a b c d

(A) iii iv i ii

(B) iii iv ii i

(D) iv iii ii i

29. STRIPS addresses the problem of efficiently representing and implementation of a planner. It is not related to which one of the following ?

(A) SHAKEY (B) SRI (C) NLP (D) None of these

30. Slots and facets are used in

(A) Semantic Networks (B) Frames (C) Rules (D) All of these

31. Consider f(N) = g(N) + h(N) Where function g is a measure of the cost of getting from the start node to the current node N and h is an estimate of additional cost of getting from the current node N to the goal node. Then f(N) = h(N) is used in which one of the following algorithms ?

(A) A* algorithm (B) AO* algorithm

32. ________predicate calculus allows quantified variables to refer to objects in the domain of discourse and not to predicates or functions.

(A) Zero-order (B) First-order (C) Second-order (D) High-order

33. ________ is used in game trees to reduce the number of branches of the search tree to be traversed without affecting the solution.

(A)Best first search (B)Goal stack planning (C)Alpha-beta pruning procedure (D)Min-max search

34. Consider a uniprocessor system where new processes arrive at an average of five processes per minute and each process needs an average of 6 seconds of service time. What will be the CPU utilization ?

(A) 80 % (B) 50 % (C) 60 % (D) 30 %

35. Consider a program that consists of 8 pages (from 0 to 7) and we have 4 page frames in the physical memory for the pages. The page reference string is : 1 2 3 2 5 6 3 4 6 3 7 3 1 5 3 6 3 4 2 4 3 4 5 1 The number of page faults in LRU and optimal page replacement algorithms are respectively (without including initial page faults to fill available page frames with pages) :

(A) 9 and 6 (B) 10 and 7 (C) 9 and 7 (D) 10 and 6

36. Which of the following statements is not true about disk-arm scheduling algorithms ?

(A) SSTF (shortest seek time first) algorithm increases performance of FCFS.

(B) The number of requests for disk service are not influenced by file allocation method.

(D) SCAN and C-SCAN algorithms are less likely to have a starvation problem.

37. _________ maintains the list of free disk blocks in the Unix file system.

(A) I-node (B) Boot block (C) Super block (D) File allocation table

38. A part of Windows 2000 operating system that is not portable is

(A) Device Management (B) Virtual Memory Management

39. Match the following with reference to Unix shell scripts :

List – I List – II

a. $? i. File name of the current script

b. $# ii. List of arguments

c. $0 iii. The number of arguments

d. $* iv. Exit status of last command

Codes :

a b c d

(A) iii ii i iv

(B) ii iii i iv

(D) i iii i iv

40. The advantage of _______ is that it can reference memory without paying the price of having a full memory address in the instruction.

(A)Direct addressing (B)Indexed addressing (C)Register addressing (D)Register Indirect addressing

41. The reverse polish notation equivalent to infix expression ((A + B) * C + D)/(E + F + G)

(A) A B + C * D + EF + G + / (B) A B + C D * + E F + G + /

42. The output of a sequential circuit depends on

(A) present input only (B) past input only

43. A byte addressable computer has a memory capacity of 2m Kbytes and can perform 2n operations. An instruction involving 3 operands and one operator needs a maximum of

(A) 3m bits (B) m + n bits (C) 3m + n bits (D) 3m + n + 30 bits

44. Which of the following flip-flops is free from race condition ?

(A)T flip-flop (B)SR flip-flop (C)Master-slave JK flip-flop (D)None of the above

45. One of the main features that distinguish microprocessor from micro-computers is

(A) words are usually larger in microprocessors.(B) words are shorter in microprocessors.

46. The output generated by the LINUX command : $ seq 1 2 10 will be

(A) 1 2 10 (B) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 (C) 1 3 5 7 9 (D) 1 5 10

47. All the classes necessary for windows programming are available in the module :

(A) win.txt (B) win.main (C) win.std (D) MFC

48. Windows 32 API supports

(A) 16-bit Windows (B) 32-bit Windows (C) 64-bit Windows (D) All of the above

49. Superficially the term “objectoriented”, means that, we organize software as a

(A) collection of continuous objects that incorporates both data structure and behaviour.

(B) collection of discrete objects that incorporates both discrete structure and behaviour.

(D) collection of objects that incorporates both discrete data structure and behaviour.

50. The “part-whole”, or “a-part-of”, relationship in which objects representing the components of something associated with an object representing the entire assembly is called as

(A) Association (B) Aggregation (C) Encapsulation (D) Generalisation

51. The pure object oriented programming language with extensive metadata available and modifiable at run time is

(A) Small talk (B) C++ (C) Java (D) Eiffel

52. Match the following interfaces of Java. Servlet package :

List – I List – II

a. Servlet Config i. Enables Servlets to log events

b. Servlet Context ii. Read data from a client

c. Servlet Request iii. Write data to a client

d. Servlet Response iv. To get initialization parameters

Codes :

a b c d

(A) iii iv ii i

(B) iii ii iv i

(D) iv i ii iii

53. The syntax of capturing events method for document object is

(A) CaptureEvents() (B) CaptureEvents(Orgs eventType)

54. Linking to another place in the same or another w ebpage require two A (Anchor) tags, the first with the ________ attribute and the second with the _________ attribute.

(A) NAME & LINK (B) LINK & HREF (C) HREF & NAME (D) TARGET & VALUE

55. Given an image of size 1024 × 1024 pixels in which intensity of each pixel is an 8-bit quality. It requires _______ of storage space if the image is not compressed.

(A) one Terabyte (B) one Megabyte (C) 8 Megabytes (D) 8 Terabytes

56. Match the following cryptographic algorithms with their design issues :

List – I List – II

a. DES i. Message Digest

b. AES ii. Public Key

c. RSA iii. 56-bit key

d. SHA-1 iv. 128-bit key

Codes :

a b c d

(A) ii i iv iii

(B) iii i iv ii

(D) iv i ii iii

57. Consider a code with five valid code words of length ten :

0000000000, 0000011111, 1111100000, 1110000011, 1111111111

Hamming distance of the code is (A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 9

58. Which of the following special cases does not require reformulation of the problem in order to obtain a solution ?

(A) Alternate optimality (B) Infeasibility (C) Unboundedness (D) All of the above

59. The given maximization assignment problem can be converted into a minimization problem by

(A) subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column.

(B) subtracting each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table.

(D) adding maximum value of the table to each entry in the table.

60. The initial basic feasible solution of the following transportion problem :

then the minimum cost is

UGC NET Previous Solved Paper-III June 2014

(A) 76 (B) 78 (C) 80 (D) 82

61. Given the following equalities :

E1 : nK+Î + nK lg n = q(nK+Î) for all

fixed K and Î, K > 0 and Î > 0.

E2 : n32n + 6n23n = O(n32n)

Which of the following is true ?

(A) E1 is correct and E2 is correct. (B) E1 is correct and E2 is not correct.

62. Consider the fractional knapsack instance n = 4, (p1, p2, p3, p4) = (10,10, 12, 18), (w1, w2, w3, w4) = (2, 4,6, 9) and M = 15. The maximum profit is given by (Assume p and w denotes profit and weight of objects respectively)

(A) 40 (B) 38 (C) 32 (D) 30

63. The solution of the recurrence relation of T(n) = 3T

floor

+ n is

(A) O(n2) (B) O(nlg n)

64. If h is chosen from a universal collection of hash functions and is used to hash n keys into a table of size m, where n < m, the expected number of collisions involving a particular key K is

(A) less than 1 (B) less than lg n (C) greater than 1 (D) greater than lg n

65. Given the following statements :

S1 : The subgraph-isomorphism problem takes two graphs G1 and G2 and asks whether G1 is a subgraph of G2.

S2 : The set-partition problem takes as input a set S of numbers and asks whether the numbers can be partitioned into two sets A and

–A

= S – A such that

x Î A

x Î

–A

Which of the following is true ?

(A) S1 is NP problem and S2 is P problem. (B) S1 is NP problem and S2 is NP problem.

66.

67. Ten signals, each requiring 3000 Hz, are multiplexed on to a single channel using FDM. How much

minimum bandwidth is required for the multiplexed channel ? Assume that the guard bands are 300 Hz

wide.

(A) 30,000 (B) 32,700 (C) 33,000 (D) None of the above

68. A terminal multiplexer has six 1200 bps terminals and ‘n’ 300 bps terminals connected to it. If the outgoing line is 9600 bps, what is the value of n ?

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 28

69. Which of the following is used in the options field of IPv4 ?

(A) Strict source routing (B) Loose source routing (C) time stamp (D) All of the above

70. Which layers of the OSI reference model are host-to-host layers ?

(A) Transport, Session, Presentation, Application

(B) Network, Transport, Session, Presentation

(D) Physical, Data-link, Network, Transport

71. A network on the Internet has a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. What is the maximum number of hosts it can handle ?

(A) 1024 (B) 2048 (C) 4096 (D) 8192

72. Four bits are used for packed sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a computer network. What is the maximum window size ?

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 15 (D) 16

73. Given the following two grammars :

G1 : S -> AB | aaB

A -> a | Aa

B -> b

G2 : S -> a S b S | b S a S |

Which statement is correct ?

(A) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is unambiguous. (B) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is ambiguous.

74. Match the following :

75. Given the following two languages :

Which statement is correct ?

(A) Both L1 and L2 are not deterministic.

(B) L1 is not deterministic and L2 is deterministic.

(D) Both L1 and L2 are deterministic.

UGC NET Answer Key June 2014 Paper-III

<--BACK

UGC NET JUNE 2014

ANSWER KEYS

Computer Science and Applications

PAPER-III

UGC NET Answer Key June 2014 Paper-II

<--BACK
UGC NET JUNE 2014

ANSWER KEYS

Computer Science and Applications

PAPER-II

UGC NET Answer Key June 2014 Paper-I

<--BACK

UGC NET JUNE 2014
ANSWER KEYS
PAPER-I

UGC NET Solved Paper-III June 2014

NEXT>>

COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS

Paper – III

1. Beam-penetration and shadow-mask are the two basic techniques for producing color displays with a CRT. Which of the following is not true ?
I. The beam-penetration is used with random scan monitors.
II. Shadow-mask is used in rasterscan systems.
III. Beam-penetration method is better than shadow-mask method.
IV. Shadow-mask method is better than beam-penetration method.
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III only (D) IV only
2. Line caps are used for adjusting the shape of the line ends to give them a better appearance. Various kinds of line caps used are
(A) Butt cap and sharp cap (B) Butt cap and round cap
(C) Butt cap, sharp cap and round cap (D) Butt cap, round cap and projecting square cap
3. Given below are certain output primitives and their associated attributes. Match each primitive with
its corresponding attributes :
List – I List – II
a. Line i. Type, Size, Color
b. Fill Area ii. Color, Size, Font
c. Text iii. Style, Color, Pattern
d. Marker iv. Type, Width, Color
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii i iii iv
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iii i iv ii
4. Consider a window bounded by the lines : x = 0; y= 0; x = 5 and y = 3. The line segment joining (–1, 0) and (4, 5), if clipped against this window will connect the points
(A) (0, 1) and (2, 3) (B) (0, 1) and (3, 3) (C) (0, 1) and (4, 3) (D) (0, 1) and (3, 2)
5. Which of the following color models are defined with three primary colors ?
(A) RGB and HSV color models (B) CMY and HSV color models
(C) HSV and HLS color models (D) RGB and CMY color models
6. In a digital transmission, the receiver clock is 0.1 percent faster than the sender clock. How many extra bits per second does the receiver receive if the data rate is 1 Mbps ?
(A) 10 bps (B) 100 bps (C) 1000 bps (D) 10000 bps
7. Given U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
A = {(3, 0.7), (5, 1), (6, 0.8)} then ~A will be : (where ~ ® complement)
(A) {(4, 0.7), (2, 1), (1, 0.8)} (B) {(4, 0.3), (5, 0), (6, 0.2) }
(C) {(1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 0.3), (4, 1), (6, 0.2), (7, 1)} (D) {(3, 0.3), (6.0.2)}
8. Consider a fuzzy set old as defined below
Old = {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2), (40, 0.4),(50, 0.6), (60, 0.8), (70, 1), (80, 1)}
Then the alpha-cut for alpha = 0.4 for the set old will be
(A) {(40, 0.4)} (B) {50, 60, 70, 80}
(C) {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2)} (D) {(20, 0), (30, 0), (40, 1),(50, 1), (60, 1), (70, 1), (80, 1)}
9. Perceptron learning, Delta learning and LMS learning are learning methods which falls under the
category of
(A) Error correction learning – learning with a teacher
(B) Reinforcement learning – learning with a critic
(C) Hebbian learning
(D) Competitive learning – learning without a teacher
10. Code blocks allow many algorithms to be implemented with the following parameters :
(A) clarity, elegance, performance (B) clarity, elegance, efficiency
(C) elegance, performance, execution (D) execution, clarity, performance
11. Match the following with respect to the jump statements :
List – I List – II
a. return i. The conditional test and increment portions
b. goto ii. A value associated with it
c. break iii. Requires a label for operation
d. continue iv. An exit from only the innermost loop
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iii iv i
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
12. The control string in C++ consists of three important classifications of characters
(A) Escape sequence characters, Format specifiers and Whitespace characters
(B) Special characters, White-space characters and Non-white space characters
(C) Format specifiers, White-space characters and Non-white space characters
(D) Special characters, White-space characters and Format specifiers
13. Match the following with respect to I/O classes in object oriented programming :
List – I List – II
a. fopen() i. returns end of file
b. fclose() ii. return for any problem report
c. ferror() iii. returns 0
d. feof() iv. returns a file pointer
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) iii i iv ii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) iv iii i ii
14. Which one of the following describes the syntax of prolog program ?
I. Rules and facts are terminated by full stop (.)
II. Rules and facts are terminated by semicolon (;)
III. Variables names must start with upper case alphabets.
IV. Variables names must start with lower case alphabets.
Codes :
(A) I, II (B) III, IV (C) I, III (D) II, IV
15. Let L be any language. Define even (W) as the strings obtained by extracting from W the letters in the
even-numbered positions and even(L) = {even (W) | W Î L}. We define another language Chop (L) by
removing the two leftmost symbols of every string in L given by Chop(L) = {W | n W Î L, with | n | = 2}.
If L is regular language then (A) even(L) is regular and Chop(L) is not regular.
(B) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are regular.
(C) even(L) is not regular and Chop(L) is regular.
(D) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are not regular.
16. Software testing is
(A) the process of establishing that errors are not present.
(B) the process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is supposed to do.
(C) the process of executing a program to show that it is working as per specifications.
(D) the process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors.
17. Assume that a program will experience 200 failures in infinite time. It has now experienced 100 failures. The initial failure intensity was 20 failures/CPU hr. Then the current failure intensity will be
(A) 5 failures/CPU hr (B) 10 failures/CPU hr. (C) 20 failures/CPU hr. (D) 40 failures/CPU hr.
18. Consider a project with the following functional units :
Number of user inputs = 50 Number of user outputs = 40
Number of user enquiries = 35 Number of user files = 06
Number of external interfaces = 04
Assuming all complexity adjustment factors and weighing factors as average, the function points for the project will be
(A) 135 (B) 722 (C) 675 (D) 672
19. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Correctness i. The extent to which a software tolerates the unexpected problems
b. Accuracy ii. The extent to which a software meets its specifications
c. Robustness iii. The extent to which a software has specified functions
d. Completeness iv. Meeting specifications with precision
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv i iii
(B) i ii iii iv
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iv ii i iii
20. Which one of the following is not a definition of error ?
(A) It refers to the discrepancy between a computed, observed or measured value and the true, specified or theoretically correct value.
(B) It refers to the actual output of a software and the correct output.
(C) It refers to a condition that causes a system to fail.
(D) It refers to human action that results in software containing a defect or fault.
21. Which one of the following is not a key process area in CMM level 5 ?
(A) Defect prevention (B) Process change management
(C) Software product engineering (D) Technology change management
22. Consider the following relational schemas for a library database : Book (Title, Author, Catalog_no,
Publisher, Year, Price) Collection(Title, Author, Catalog_no) with the following functional dependencies :
I. Title, Author ® Catalog_no
II. Catalog_no ® Title, Author,Publisher, Year
III. Publisher, Title, Year ® Price Assume (Author, Title) is the key for both schemas. Which one of the
following is true ?
(A) Both Book and Collection are in BCNF. (B) Both Book and Collection are in 3NF.
(C) Book is in 2NF and Collection in 3NF. (D) Both Book and Collection are in 2NF.
23. Specialization Lattice stands for
(A) An entity type can participate as a subclass in only one specialization.
(B) An entity type can participate as a subclass in more than one specialization.
(C) An entity type that can participate in one specialization.
(D) An entity type that can participate in one generalization.
24. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Timeout ordering protocol i. Wait for graph
b. Deadlock prevention ii. Roll back
c. Deadlock detection iii. Wait-die scheme
d. Deadlock recovery iv. Thomas Write Rule
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iii i iv iii
25. Consider the schema R = {S, T, U, V} and the dependencies S-> T, T-> U, U -> V and V -> S
If R = (R₁ and R₂) be a decomposition such that R₁ R₂ = f then the decomposition is
(A) not in 2NF (B) in 2NF but not in 3NF
(C) in 3NF but not in 2NF (D) in both 2NF and 3NF

October 28, 2014

UGC NET Solved Previous Paper-II June 2014

<<Back

COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS

Paper – II

26. Match the following with respect to the mobile computing technologies :
List – I List – II
a. GPRS i. An integrated digital radio standard
b. GSM ii. 3G wireless/Mobile technology
c. UMTS iii. Nine different schemes for modulation and error correction
d. EDGE iv. An emerging wireless service that offers a mobile data
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) iv i ii iii
(C) ii iii iv i
(D) ii i iv iii
27. Object Request Broker (ORB) is
I. A software program that runs on the client as well as on the application server.
II. A software program that runs on the client side only.
III. A software program that runs on the application server, where most of the components reside.
(A) I, II & III (B) I & II (C) II & III (D) I only
28. A software agent is defined as
I. A software developed for accomplishing a given task.
II. A computer program capable of acting on behalf of user in order to accomplish a given computational task.
III. An open source software for accomplishing a given task.
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) All of the above
29. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Classification i. Principal component analysis
b. Clustering ii. Branch and Bound
c. Feature Extraction iii. K-nearest neighbour
d. Feature Selection iv. K-means
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) iv iii i ii
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv iii ii i
30. SET, an open encryption and security specification model that is designed for protecting credit card transactions on the internet, stands for
(A) Secure Electronic Transaction (B) Secular Enterprise for Transaction
(C) Security Electronic Transmission (D) Secured Electronic Termination
31. In a paged memory management algorithm, the hit ratio is 70%. If it takes 30 nanoseconds to search Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) and 100 nanoseconds (ns) to access memory, the
effective memory access time is
(A) 91 ns (B) 69 ns (C) 200 ns (D) 160 ns
32. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Multilevel feedback queue i. Time-slicing
b. FCFS ii. Criteria to move processes between queues
c. Shortest process next iii. Batch processing
d. Round robin scheduling iv. Exponential smoothening
Codes :
a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) iii i iv i
(D) ii iii iv i
33. Consider a system with five processes P₀ through P₄ and three resource types R₁, R₂ and R₃. Resource type R₁ has 10 instances, R₂ has 5 instances and R₃ has 7 instances. Suppose that at time
T₀, the following snapshot of the system has been taken :

Assume that now the process P₁ requests one additional instance of type R₁ and two instances of resource type R₃. The state resulting after this allocation will be
(A) Ready state (B) Safe state (C) Blocked state (D) Unsafe state
34. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Contiguous allocation i. This scheme supports very large file sizes.
b. Linked allocation ii. This allocation technique supports only sequential files.
c. Indexed allocation iii. Number of disks required to access file is minimal.
d. Multi-level indexed iv. This technique suffers from max wastage of space in storing pointers.
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) i ii iv iii
(D) i iv ii iii
35. Which of the following commands will output “one two three” ?
(A) for val; do echo-n $val; done < one two three
(B) for one two three; do echo-n-; done
(C) for n in one two three; do echo-n $n; done
(D) for n in one two three {echo –n $ n}
36. Mergesort makes two recursive calls. Which statement is true after these two recursive calls finish, but before the merge step ?
(A) The array elements form a heap.
(B) Elements in each half of the array are sorted amongst themselves.
(C) Elements in first half of the array are less than or equal to elements in second half of the array.
(D) All of the above
37. A text is made up of the characters a, b, g, d and s with the probability 0.12, 0.40, 0.15, 0.08 and 0.25 respectively. The optimal coding technique will have the average length of
(A) 1.7 (B) 2.15 (C) 3.4 (D) 3.8
38. Searching for an element in the hash table requires O(1) time for the ________ time, whereas for direct addressing it holds for the ________ time.
(A) worst-case, average (B) worst-case, worst-case (C) average, worst-case (D) best, average
39. An algorithm is made up of 2 modules M₁ and M₂. If time complexity of modules M1 and M2 are h(n) and g(n) respectively, the time complexity of the algorithm is
(A) min (h(n), g(n)) (B) max (h(n), g(n)) (C) h(n) + g(n) (D) h(n) * g(n)
40. What is the maximum number of parenthesis that will appear on the stack at any one time for parenthesis expression given by ( ( ) ( ( ) ) ( ( ) ) )
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
41. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Automatic storage class i. Scope of the variable is global.
b. Register storage class ii. Value of the variable persists between different function calls.
c. Static storage class iii. Value stored in memory& local to block in which variable is defined.
d. External storage class iv. Value stored in CPU registers.
Codes :
a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
42. When we pass an array as an argument to a function, what actually gets passed ?
(A) Address of the array (B) Values of the elements of the array
(C) Base address of the array (D) Number of elements of the array
43. While (87) printf(“computer”);
The above C statement will
(A) print “computer” 87 times (B) print “computer” 0 times
(C) print “computer” 1 times (D) print “computer” infinite times
44. A friend function can be used to
(A) avoid arguments between classes. (B) allow access to classes whose source code is unavailable.
(C) allow one class to access an unrelated class. (D) None of the above
45. Which of the following is the correct value returned to the operating system upon the successful completion of a program ?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) – 1 (D) Program do not return a value.
46. Manager’s salary details are hidden from the employee. This is called as
(A) Conceptual level data hiding (B) Physical level data hiding
(C) External level data hiding (D) Local level data hiding
47. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF.
(B) A relation in which every key has only one attribute is in 2NF.
(C) A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in 3NF relation.
(D) A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in BCNF relation.
48. A clustering index is created when _______.
(A) primary key is declared and ordered (B) no key ordered
(C) foreign key ordered (D) there is no key and no order
49. Let R ={A, B, C, D, E, F} be a relation schema with the following dependencies C -> F, E -> A, EC -> D, A -> B
Which of the following is a key for R ?
(A) CD (B) EC (C) AE (D) AC
50. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. DDL i. LOCK TABLE
b. DML ii. COMMIT
c. TCL iii. Natural Difference
d. BINARY Operation iv. REVOKE
Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii i iii iv
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) iii ii i iv
(D) iv i ii iii

UGC NET Solved Paper-II June 2014

Next>>

COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS

Paper – II

1. Infrared signals can be used for short range communication in a closed area using _______ propagation.
(A) ground (B) sky (C) line of sight (D) space
2. A bridge has access to _______ address in the same network.
(A) Physical (B) Network (C) Datalink (D) Application
3. The minimum frame length for 10 Mbps Ethernet is _______ bytes and maximum is _______ bytes.
(A) 64 & 128 (B) 128 & 1518 (C) 1518 & 3036 (D) 64 & 1518
4. The bit rate of a signal is 3000 bps. If each signal unit carries 6 bits, the baud rate of the signal is _______.
(A) 500 baud/sec (B) 1000 baud/sec (C) 3000 baud/sec (D) 18000 baud/sec.
5. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Physical layer i. Allow resources to network access
b. Datalink layer ii. Move packets from one destination to other
c. Network layer iii. Process to process message delivery
d. Transport layer iv. Transmission of bit stream
e. Application Layer v. Formation of frames
Codes :
a b c d e
(A) iv v ii iii i
(B) v iv i ii iii
(C) i iii ii v iv
(D) i ii iv iii v
6.

7. Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrary CFG to an LL(1) grammar ?
(A) Removing left recursion alone (B) Removing the grammar alone
(C) Removing left recursion and factoring the grammar (D) None of the above
8. A shift reduce parser suffers from
(A) shift reduce conflict only
(B) reduce reduce conflict only
(C) both shift reduce conflict and reduce reduce conflict
(D) shift handle and reduce handle conflicts
9.

10.

11. KPA in CMM stands for
(A) Key Process Area (B) Key Product Area (C) Key Principal Area (D) Key Performance Area
12. Which one of the following is not a risk management technique for managing the risk due to unrealistic schedules and budgets ?
(A) Detailed multi source cost and schedule estimation. (B) Design cost
(C) Incremental development (D) Information hiding
13. _______ of a system is the structure or structures of the system which comprise software elements, the externally visible properties of these elements and the relationship amongst them.
(A) Software construction (B) Software evolution
(C) Software architecture (D) Software reuse
14. In function point analysis, the number of complexity adjustment factors is
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 20
15. Regression testing is primarily related to
(A) Functional testing (B) Development testing (C) Data flow testing (D) Maintenance testing
16. How many different truth tables of the compound propositions are there that involve the propositions p & q ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
17. A Boolean function F is called selfdual if and only if
How many Boolean functions of degree n are self-dual ?
(A) 2ⁿ (B) (2)^2ⁿ (C) (2)^n² (D) (2)^{2^n-1}
18. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) not correct ?
i. The 2’s complement of 0 is 0.
ii. In 2’s complement, the left most bit cannot be used to express a quantity.
iii. For an n-bit word (2’s complement) which includes the sign bit, there are 2n–1 positive
integers, 2n+1 negative integers and one 0 for a total of 2n unique states.
iv. In 2’s complement the significant information is contained in the 1’s of positive numbers and 0’s
of the negative numbers.
(A) i & iv (B) i & ii (C) iii (D) iv
19.

20.

22. The upper bound and lower bound for the number of leaves in a B-tree of degree K with height h is given by :
(A) K^h and 2[K_/2]^h–1
(B) K*h and 2[K_/2]^h–1
(C) K^h and 2[K_/2]^h–1
(D) K*h and 2[K_/2]^h–1
23. Consider a complete bipartite graph k_m,n. For which values of m and n does this, complete graph have a Hamilton circuit
(A) m = 3, n = 2 (B) m = 2, n = 3 (C) m = n > 2 (D) m = n > 3
24. Big-O estimates for the factorial function and the logarithm of the factorial function i.e. n! and log n! is given by
(A) O(n!) and O(n log n) (B) O(nⁿ) and O(n log n)
(C) O(n!) and O(log n!) (D) O(nⁿ) and O(log n!)
25. How many cards must be chosen from a deck to guarantee that atleast
i. two aces of two kinds are chosen. ii. two aces are chosen.
iii. two cards of the same kind are chosen. iv. two cards of two different kinds are chosen.
(A) 50, 50, 14, 5 (B) 51, 51, 15, 7 (C) 52, 52, 14, 5 (D) 51, 51, 14, 5

NEW^**UGC NET Solved Papers Held On June 2015

October 30, 2014

UGC NET Previous Solved Paper-III June 2014

UGC NET Answer Key June 2014 Paper-III

UGC NET JUNE 2014

ANSWER KEYS

Computer Science and Applications

PAPER-III

UGC NET Answer Key June 2014 Paper-II

<--BACK
UGC NET JUNE 2014

ANSWER KEYS

Computer Science and Applications

PAPER-II

UGC NET Answer Key June 2014 Paper-I

<--BACK

UGC NET JUNE 2014
ANSWER KEYS
PAPER-I

UGC NET Solved Paper-III June 2014

October 28, 2014

UGC NET Solved Previous Paper-II June 2014

UGC NET Solved Paper-II June 2014

ugc net solution

October 30, 2014

UGC NET JUNE 2014 ANSWER KEYS Computer Science and Applications PAPER-III

<--BACK UGC NET JUNE 2014 ANSWER KEYS Computer Science and Applications PAPER-II

<--BACK UGC NET JUNE 2014 ANSWER KEYS PAPER-I

October 28, 2014

ugc net solution

UGC NET JUNE 2014

ANSWER KEYS

Computer Science and Applications

PAPER-III

<--BACK
UGC NET JUNE 2014

ANSWER KEYS

Computer Science and Applications

PAPER-II

<--BACK

UGC NET JUNE 2014
ANSWER KEYS
PAPER-I