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Showing posts with label ugc net previous year question papers with answers. Show all posts
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January 06, 2015

UGC NET Solution

WELCOME TO UGC NET SOLUTION


UGC  NET (University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test) provide  platform for postgraduate candidate to qualify for admission in PhD and also get teaching jobs at university level in India.UGC NET is the national level entrance examination in India. It determines the eligibility of Indian nationals for the eligibility for Assistant Professor only or Junior Research Fellowship & eligibility for Assistant Professor both in Indian Universities and colleges.
UGC was established in November 1956 as statutory body of Indian Government through Act of  Parliament to ensure effective coverage through out the country.UGC has its main head office at Shah Zafar Marg ,New Delhi with two additional bureaus at Feroze Shah Road and the South Campus Of University of Delhi .UGC has six centres at different states of India to decentralise its operation.Its six regional centres are at Hyderabad, Bangalore, Kolkata, Bhopal, Guwahati, Pune.
NET Exam is conducted jointly by CSIR UGC. CSIR is Council Of Scientific And Industrial Research while UGC is University Grants Commission.This NET exam is held twice in a year for the post of lecture.
CBSE (Central Board of Secondary Education) is holding the NET Exams on behalf of UGC. CBSE will conduct NET Exam in 83 subjects at 88 NET Examination cities selected across the countries.
CBSE announced the NET exam on 27 December, 2015 i.e. SUNDAY.
UGC NET Solution consist of all the previous question papers with answer key. All the information contained in the UGC NET SOLUTION  is reliable and according to the revised syllabus of UGC Guidelines. It consist of last 10 years question papers  with solutions and important topics related to  various subjects. You can download  question papers with "answer key".UGC NET SOLUTION  provide  complete detail about UGC NET EXAM .



December 24, 2014

UGC NET Previous Solved Paper-II June 2011

<--BACK
26. A comparison of frequency division ad time division multiplexing  system shows that
(A) FDM requires a lower bandwidth, but TDM has greater noise immunity.
(B) FDM has greater noise immunity and requires lower bandwidth than TDM.
(C) FDM requires channel synchronization, while TDM has greater noise immunity.
(D) FDM requires more multiplex while TDM requires band pass filter.
27. If carrier modulated by a digital bit stream, has one one of the possible phase of 0, 90, 180 and 270 degrees, then modulation called
(A) BPSK       (B) QPSK       (C) QAM         (D) MSK
28. Consider the following statement :
(i) The bandwidth of A.M., wave depends on the band width of the modulating signal.
(ii) The bandwidth of the A.M.,wave depends on the modulation index.
(iii) The bandwidth of the F.M, wave for all practical purpose depends on the amplitude of the carrier.
Of these statements the correct statements are
(A) (i, ii)          (B) (i, iii)         (C) (ii, iii)        (D) All of the above
29. A smart modem can dial, hangup and answer incoming calls automatically. Can you tell who provides the appropriate instructions to the modem for this purpose ?
(A) Communication software         (B) Error detection protocols
(C) Link access procedure (LAP)  (D) Telecommunications
30. Which of the following switching techniques is most suitable for interactive traffic ?
(A) Circuit switching            (B) Message switching
(C) Packet switching           (D) All of the above
31. Object modules generated by assembler that contains unresolved external  references are resolved for two or more object module by a/an
(A) Operating system (B) Loader (C) Linker (D) Compiler
32. A special software that is used to create a job queue is called
(A) Drive (B) Spooler (C) Interpreter (D) Linkage editor
33. Which of the following permanent database that has an entry for each terminal symbol ?
(A) Literal table (B) Identifier table (C) Terminal table (D) Source table
34. In which way(s) a macroprocessor for assembly language can be implemented ?
(A) Independent two-pass processor (B) Independent one-pass processor
(C) Expand macrocalls and substitute arguments (D) All of the above
35. Which of the following can be accessed by transfer vector approach of linking ?
(A) External data segments              (B) External subroutine
(C) Data located in other procedure (D) All of the above
36. Block or Buffer caches are used to
(A) improve disk performance 
(B) handle interrupts
(C) increase the capacity of main memory
(D) speed up main memory Read operations
37. A file organization component VSAM file is
(A) Relative records data set   (B) Keyed sequential data set
(C) Entry sequential data set   (D) All of the above
38. A relationship between processes such that each has some part (critical section) which must not be executed while the critical section of another is being executed, is known as
(A) Semaphore (B) Mutual exclusion (C) Multiprogramming (D) Message passing
39. How many states can a process be in ?
(A) 3    (B) 4   (C) 2   (D) 5
40. Which command allows you to view your file 24 lines at a time ?
(A) More         (B) Cat            (C) Pg             (D) None of the above
41. Which one of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers ?
(A) Process  (B) Manufacturing  (C) Method  (D) Tools
42. What is the first stage in program development ?
(A) Specification and design (B) System Analysis
(C) Testing                            (D) None of the above
43. By means of a data flow diagram, the analyst can detect
(A) Task duplication             (B) Unnecessary delays
(C) Task overlapping            (D) All of the above
44. Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities ?
(A) Communication, planning, modelling, construction, deployment
(B) Communication, risk management, measurement, production, reviewing
(C) Analysis, designing, programming, Debugging, maintenance
(D) Analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing
45. Many causes of the software crisis can be traced to mythology based on
(A) Management Myths      (B) Customer Myths
(C) Practitioner Myths         (D) All of the above
46. Data warehousing refers to
(A) storing data offline at a separate site
(B) backing up data regularly
(C) is related to data mining
(D) uses tape as opposed to disk
47. Virtual memory is
(A) related to virtual reality  (B) a form of ROM
(C) a form of RAM                (D) None of the above
48. “M-Commerce” refers to
(A) a myth which does not exist in reality
(B) the ability of business to reach potential customers wherever they are
(C) the ability to have large capacity of memory storage dealing trade and commerce
(D) None of the above
49. The principal electronic payment systems for electronic commerce is
(A) Credit Card (B) Digital Wallet (C) Electronic Cheque (D) All of the above
50. Which is the most valuable electronic commerce to individual customer in long run ?
(A) Business to Customer (B) Business to Business

(C) Customer to Customer (D) None of the above

October 28, 2014

UGC NET Solved Previous Paper-II June 2014

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COMPUTER SCIENCE AND APPLICATIONS
Paper – II

26. Match the following with respect to the mobile computing technologies :
    List – I                                 List – II
a. GPRS                      i. An integrated digital radio standard
b. GSM                       ii. 3G wireless/Mobile technology
c. UMTS                     iii. Nine different schemes for modulation and error correction
d. EDGE                     iv. An emerging wireless service that offers a mobile data
    Codes :
       a        b        c        d
(A) iii       iv       ii        i
(B) iv        i        ii         iii
(C) ii         iii      iv        i
(D) ii         i        iv        iii
27. Object Request Broker (ORB) is
I. A software program that runs on the client as well as on the application server.
II. A software program that runs on the client side only.
III. A software program that runs on the application server, where most of the components reside.
(A) I, II & III (B) I & II  (C) II & III (D) I only
28. A software agent is defined as
I. A software developed for accomplishing a given task.
II. A computer program capable of acting on behalf of user in order to accomplish a given computational task.
III. An open source software for accomplishing a given task.
(A) I             (B) II             (C) III            (D) All of the above
29. Match the following :
    List – I                                List – II
a. Classification                  i. Principal component analysis
b. Clustering                       ii. Branch and Bound
c. Feature Extraction          iii. K-nearest neighbour
d. Feature Selection            iv. K-means
Codes :
         a      b    c    d
(A)    iii     iv    ii     i
(B)    iv     iii    i      ii
(C)    iii     iv    i      ii
(D)    iv     iii    ii      i
30. SET, an open encryption and security specification model that is designed for protecting credit card transactions on the internet, stands for
(A) Secure Electronic Transaction     (B) Secular Enterprise for Transaction
(C) Security Electronic Transmission (D) Secured Electronic Termination
31. In a paged memory management algorithm, the hit ratio is 70%. If it takes 30 nanoseconds to search Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) and 100 nanoseconds (ns) to access memory, the
effective memory access time is
(A) 91 ns (B) 69 ns  (C) 200 ns (D) 160 ns
32. Match the following :
    List – I                                            List – II
a. Multilevel feedback queue          i. Time-slicing
b. FCFS                                        ii. Criteria to move processes between queues
c. Shortest process next                 iii. Batch processing
d. Round robin scheduling             iv. Exponential smoothening
    Codes :
        a   b    c     d
(A)   i    iii    ii     iv
(B)   iv   iii    ii     i
(C)   iii   i     iv     i
(D)   ii    iii   iv     i
33. Consider a system with five processes P0 through P4 and three resource types R1, R2 and R3. Resource type R1 has 10 instances, R2 has 5 instances and R3 has 7 instances. Suppose that at time
T0, the following snapshot of the system has been taken :

Assume that now the process P1 requests one additional instance of type R1 and two instances of resource type R3. The state resulting after this allocation will be
(A) Ready state      (B) Safe state       (C) Blocked state      (D) Unsafe state
34. Match the following :
    List – I                                    List – II
a. Contiguous allocation  i. This scheme supports very large file sizes.
b. Linked allocation        ii. This allocation technique supports only sequential files.
c. Indexed allocation      iii. Number of disks required to access file is minimal.
d. Multi-level indexed    iv. This technique suffers from max wastage of space in storing pointers.
   Codes :
        a    b    c    d
(A)   iii   iv    ii     i
(B)   iii   ii     iv    i
(C)   i    ii     iv    iii
(D)   i    iv    ii     iii
35. Which of the following commands will output “one two three” ?
(A) for val; do echo-n $val; done < one two three
(B) for one two three; do echo-n-; done
(C) for n in one two three; do echo-n $n; done
(D) for n in one two three {echo –n $ n}
36. Mergesort makes two recursive calls. Which statement is true after these two recursive calls finish, but before the merge step ?
(A) The array elements form a heap.
(B) Elements in each half of the array are sorted amongst themselves.
(C) Elements in first half of the array are less than or equal to elements in second half of the array.
(D) All of the above
37. A text is made up of the characters a, b, g, d and s with the probability 0.12, 0.40, 0.15, 0.08 and 0.25 respectively. The optimal coding technique will have the average length of
(A) 1.7          (B) 2.15               (C) 3.4               (D) 3.8
38. Searching for an element in the hash table requires O(1) time for the ________ time, whereas for direct addressing it holds for the ________ time.
(A) worst-case, average  (B) worst-case, worst-case   (C) average, worst-case    (D) best, average
39. An algorithm is made up of 2 modules M1 and M2. If time complexity of modules M1 and M2 are h(n) and g(n) respectively, the time complexity of the algorithm is
(A) min (h(n), g(n))   (B) max (h(n), g(n))       (C) h(n) + g(n)           (D) h(n) * g(n)
40. What is the maximum number of parenthesis that will appear on the stack at any one time for parenthesis expression given by ( ( ) ( ( ) ) ( ( ) ) )
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
41. Match the following :
    List – I                               List – II
a. Automatic storage class  i. Scope of the variable is global.
b. Register storage class     ii. Value of the variable persists between different function calls.
c. Static storage class        iii. Value stored in memory& local to block in which variable is defined.
d. External storage class   iv. Value stored in CPU registers.
     Codes :
        a b c d
(A) iii iv i ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) iv iii ii i
(D) iv iii i ii
42. When we pass an array as an argument to a function, what actually gets passed ?
(A) Address of the array        (B) Values of the elements of the array
(C) Base address of the array (D) Number of elements of the array
43. While (87) printf(“computer”);
The above C statement will
(A) print “computer” 87 times (B) print “computer” 0 times
(C) print “computer” 1 times   (D) print “computer” infinite times
44. A friend function can be used to
(A) avoid arguments between classes. (B) allow access to classes whose source code is unavailable.
(C) allow one class to access an unrelated class.  (D) None of the above
45. Which of the following is the correct value returned to the operating system upon the successful completion of a program ?
(A) 0             (B) 1               (C) – 1     (D) Program do not return a value.
46. Manager’s salary details are hidden from the employee. This is called as
(A) Conceptual level data hiding (B) Physical level data hiding
(C) External level data hiding      (D) Local level data hiding
47. Which of the following statements is false ?
(A) Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF.
(B) A relation in which every key has only one attribute is in 2NF.
(C) A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in 3NF relation.
(D) A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in BCNF relation.
48. A clustering index is created when _______.
(A) primary key is declared and ordered (B) no key ordered
(C) foreign key ordered                            (D) there is no key and no order
49. Let R ={A, B, C, D, E, F} be a relation schema with the following dependencies C -> F, E -> A, EC -> D, A -> B
Which of the following is a key for R ?
(A) CD (B) EC (C) AE (D) AC
50. Match the following :
    List – I                              List – II
a. DDL                             i.   LOCK TABLE
b. DML                            ii.  COMMIT
c. TCL                              iii. Natural Difference
d. BINARY Operation     iv. REVOKE
     Codes :
        a     b    c     d
(A)   ii     i     iii     iv
(B)   i      ii    iv     iii
(C)   iii    ii    i       iv
(D)   iv    i    ii       iii

December 25, 2013

UGC NET Previous Year June 2013 Paper-I

<<<BACK                                SET-W                     

1.Which one of the following references is written as per Modern Language Association (MLA) format ?
(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi – Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
2. A workshop is
(A) a conference for discussion on a topic.
(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.
(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic.
(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
3. A working hypothesis is
(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.
(B) not required to be tested.
(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research.
(D) a scientific theory.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (4 to 9) :
The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but
it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Illuminated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara). Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the griefstricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the river Tapti. Six months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had
belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his “ancestral domain”, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.
4. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
(A) Burhanpur             (B) Makrana    (C) Amber       (D) Jaipur
5. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(A) Shah Jahan            (B) Tourists     (C) Public        (D) European travellers
6. Point out the true statement from the following :
(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Mahal.
(B) Red sand stone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.
(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh.
(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’.
7. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known
(A) Mumtazabad   (B) Mumtaz Mahal   (C) Zainabad  (D) Rauza-i-Munavvara
8. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(A) 1632 – 1636 A.D. (B) 1630 – 1643 A.D.(C) 1632 – 1643 A.D.(D) 1636 – 1643 A.D.
9. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as
(A) Farman  (B) Sale Deed  (C) Sale-Purchase Deed   (D) None of the above
10. In the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order ?
(A) Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message
(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect
(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect
(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect
11. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by
(A) Dr. Annie Besant (B) James Augustus Hicky (C) Lord Cripson  (D) A.O. Hume
12. Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(A) Rajeev Gandhi  (B) Narasimha Rao (C) Indira Gandhi   (D) Deve Gowda
13. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as
(A) Entertainment  (B) Interactive communication (C) Developmental communication (D) Communitarian
14. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(A) Infotainment (B) Edutainment (C) Entertainment (D) Enlightenment
15. ________ is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student.
(A) Sympathy (B) Empathy   (C) Apathy      (D) Antipathy
16. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
(A) UJHFS      (B) UHJSF      (C) JHUSF      (D) HUJSF
17. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
(A) 8                (B) 10              (C) 12              (D) 14
18. The missing number in the series   40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
(A) 110            (B) 270            (C) 105            (D) 210
19. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6th position is
(A) 18              (B) 24              (C) 33              (D) 36
20. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the remaining  numbers is
(A) 30              (B) 85/2          (C) 170/3         (D) 110
21. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by
(A) 20%          (B) 30%           (C) 40%           (D) 50%
22. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true. Choose the correct code given below :
(i) All men are honest.             (ii) No men are honest.
(iii) Some men are not honest. (iv) All men are dishonest.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)
23. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Bee – Honey, Cow – Milk, Teacher – ?
(A) Intelligence (B) Marks  (C) Lessons (D) Wisdom
24. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T ?
(A) Wife          (B) Sister-in-law          (C) Brother-in-law      (D) Daughter-in-law
25. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
(A) Lexical      (B) Persuasive (C) Stipulative (D) Precisions
26. Which of the codes given below  contains only the correct statements ?
Statements :
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism.
Codes :
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) & (iv)
27. Inductive reasoning presupposes
(A) unity in human nature                  (B) integrity in human nature
(C) uniformity in human nature          (D) harmony in human nature
Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 28 to 33 :
Area under Major Horticulture Crops
(in lakh hectares)

28. Which of the following two years have recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the total horticulture ?
(A) 2005–06 & 2006–07         (B) 2006–07 & 2008–09
(C) 2007–08 & 2008–09         (D) 2006–07 & 2007–08
29. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively :
(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent         (B) 30, 38 and 1 percent
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent         (D) 35, 36 and 2 percent
30. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during 2005-06 to 2009-10 ?
(A) Fruits        (B) Vegetables            (C) Flowers     (D) Total horticulture
31. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10
(A) Fruits        (B) Vegetables            (C) Flowers     (D) Total horticulture
32. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007- 08 ?
(A) 53 percent (B) 68 percent (C) 79 percent (D) 100 percent
33. In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase ?
(A) 2006-07 (B) 2007-08 (C) 2008-09 (D) 2009-10
34. ‘www’ stands for
(A) work with web     (B) word wide web   (C) world wide web    (D) worth while web
35. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(A) Clusters     (B) Sectors      (C) Vectors     (D) Heads
36. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine language is called a/an
(A) Compiler   (B) Simulator  (C) Translator  (D) Interpreter
37. A Gigabyte is equal to
(A) 1024 Megabytes   (B) 1024 Kilobytes     (C) 1024 Terabytes     (D) 1024 Bytes
38. A Compiler is a software which converts
(A) characters to bits                                  (B) high level language to machine language
(C) machine language to high level language (D) words to bits
39. Virtual memory is
(A) an extremely large main memory.               (B) an extremely large secondary memory.
(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory.(D) a type of memory used in super computers.
40. The phrase ‘tragedy of commons’ is in the context of
(A) tragic event related to damage caused by release of poisonous gases.
(B) tragic conditions of poor people.
(C) degradation of renewable free access resources.
(D) climate change.
41. Kyoto Protocol is related to
(A) Ozone depletion   (B) Hazardous waste  (C) Climate change     (D) Nuclear energy
42. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual  formation of surface ozone as a pollutant ?
(A) Transport sector    (B) Refrigeration and Airconditioning
(C) Wetlands               (D) Fertilizers
43. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of
(A) Oxides of sulphur             (B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM         (D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
44. Which of the following types of  natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans ?
(A) Earthquakes (B) Forest fires (C) Volcanic eruptions  (D) Droughts and Floods
45. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around
(A) 2-3%         (B) 22-25%    (C) 10-12%     (D) < 1%
46. In which of the following categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010-11 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved ?
(A) OBC students       (B) SC students          (C) ST students           (D) Woman students
47. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC) ?
(A) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.
48. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II) :
Statement : Should India switch over to a two party system ?
Arguments : (I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.       (B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong.  (D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
49. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II) :
Statement : Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections ?
Arguments : (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(A) Only argument (I) is strong.      (B) Only argument (II) is strong.
(C) Both the arguments are strong. (D) Neither of the arguments is strong.
50. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of  India ?
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3  (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
51. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(A) The President    (B) The Vice-President    (C) The Prime Minister   (D) The Cabinet Ministers
52. The black-board can be utilised best by a teacher for
(A) putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(B) making the students attentive
(C) writing the important and notable points
(D) highlighting the teacher himself
53. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is
(A) self study    (B) face-to-face learning   (C) e-learning    (D) blended learning
54. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they
(A) can teach children better than men.(B) know basic content better than men.
(C) are available on lower salaries.(D) can deal with children with love and affection.
55. Which one is the highest order of learning ?
(A) Chain learning                              (B) Problem-solving learning
(C) Stimulus-response learning           (D) Conditioned-reflex learning
56. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(A) has control over students.                (B) commands respect from students.
(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.(D) is very close to higher authorities.
57. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words.” The statement means that the teacher should
(A) use diagrams in teaching.             (B) speak more and more in the class.
(C) use teaching aids in the class.       (D) not speak too much in the class.
58. A research paper
(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.
(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.
(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.
(D) can be published in more than one journal.
59. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics?
 (A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
 (B) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
 (C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research paper.
 (D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favour even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.
60. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability ?
(A) Simple Random Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling (C) Quota Sampling (D) Cluster Sampling