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Showing posts with label ugc net previous year computer application solved papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label ugc net previous year computer application solved papers. Show all posts

December 23, 2014

UGC NET Solved Paper-II Dec 2013 Computer Science

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26. Given the following statements :
S1 : SLR uses follow information to guide reductions. In case of LR and LALR parsers, the  lookaheads are associated with the items and they make use of the left context available to the parser.
S2 : LR grammar is a larger subclass of context free grammar as compared to that SLR and LALR grammars.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(C) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.
27. The context free grammar for the language
L = {an bm | n m + 3, n 0, m 0} is
(A) S aaa A; A aAb | B, B Bb | λ
(B) S aaaA|λ, A aAb | B, B Bb | λ
(C) S aaaA | aa A | λ, A aAb | B, B Bb| λ
(D) S aaaA | aa A | aA | λ, A aAb | B, B Bb | λ
28. Given the following statements :
S1 : If L is a regular language then the language {uv | u L, v LR} is also regular.
S2 : L = {wwR} is regular language. Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(C) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.
29. The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and adjusting the code and data in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is called _______.
(A) Symbol resolution (B) Parsing (C) Assembly (D) Relocation
30. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input string ? The input is scanned from left to right.
(A) Leftmost derivation (B) Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse
(C) Rightmost derivation traced out in reverse (D) Rightmost derivation
31. The dual of a Boolean expression is obtained by interchanging
(A) Boolean sums and Boolean products
(B) Boolean sums and Boolean products or interchanging 0’s and 1’s
(C) Boolean sums and Boolean products and interchanging 0’s & 1’s
(D) Interchanging 0’s and 1’s
32. Given that (292)10 = (1204)x in some number system x. The base x of that number system is
(A) 2    (B) 8    (C) 10  (D) None of the above
33. The sum of products expansion for the function F(x, y, z) = (x + y)z is given as
(A) x yz + xyz + x yz                 (B) xyz + xyz + xy z
(C) xy z + x y z + xyz              (D) x yz + xy z + x yz
34. Let P(m, n) be the statement “m divides n” where the universe of discourse for both the variables is the set of positive integers. Determine the truth values of each of the following propositions :
I. m n P(m, n),
II. m n P(m, n)
(A) Both I and II are true       (B) Both I and II are false
(C) I – false & II – true           (D) I – true & II – false
35. Big – O estimate for f(x) = (x + 1) log(x2 + 1) + 3x2 is given as
(A) O(x log x)  (B) O(x2)         (C) O(x3)         (D) O(x2 log x)
36. How many edges are there in a forest of t-trees containing a total of n vertices ?
(A) n + t          (B) n – t           (C) n t           (D) nt
37. Let f and g be the functions from the set of integers to the set integers defined by
f(x) = 2x + 3 and g(x) = 3x + 2 Then the composition of f and g and g and f is given as
(A) 6x + 7, 6x + 11      (B) 6x + 11, 6x + 7
(C) 5x + 5, 5x + 5        (D) None of the above
38. If n and r are non-negative integers and n r, then p(n + 1, r) equals to
(A)  p(n, r) (n + 1)/ (n + 1 – r)
(B)  p(n, r) (n + 1) /(n – 1 + r)
(C)  p(n, r) (n – 1) /(n + 1 – r)
(D)  p(n, r) (n + 1) /(n + 1 + r)
39. A graph is non-planar if and only if it contains a subgraph homomorphic to
(A) K3, 2 or K5 (B) K3, 3 and K6 (C) K3, 3 or K5 (D) K2, 3 and K5
40. Which of the following statements are true ?
I. A circuit that adds two bits, producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called half adder.
II. A circuit that adds two bits, producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called full adder.
III. A circuit that adds two bits and a carry bit producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called full
adder.
IV. A device that accepts the value of a Boolean variable as input and produces its complement is called an inverter.
(A) I & II        (B) II & III     (C) I, II, III     (D) I, III & IV
41. Active X controls are Pentium binary programs that can be embedded in ________
(A) Word pages   (B) URL pages   (C) Script pages   (D) Web pages
42. Match the following :
List – I                                                List – II
a.         Wireless Application Environment     i. HTTP
b.         Wireless Transaction Protocol ii. IP
c.         Wireless Datagram Protocol               iii. Scripts
d.         Wireless                                               iv. UDP
Codes :
a          b          c          d
(A)       ii          iv         i           iii
(B)       iv         iii         ii          i
(C)       iv         iii         i           ii
(D)       iii         i           iv         ii
43. Which of the following is widely used inside the telephone system for long-haul data traffic ?
(A) ISDN        (B) ATM         (C) Frame Relay          (D) ISTN
44. The document standards for EDI were first developed by large business house during the 1970s and are now under the control of the following standard organisation :
(A) ISO           (B) ANSI        (C) ITU-T        (D) IEEE
45. Electronic Data Interchange Software consists of the following four layers :
(A) Business application, Internal format conversion, Network translator, EDI envelope
(B) Business application, Internal  format conversion, EDI translator, EDI envelope
(C) Application layer, Transport layer, EDI translator, EDI envelope
(D) Application layer, Transport layer, IP layer, EDI envelope
46. Consider a preemptive priority based scheduling algorithm based on dynamically changing priority. Larger priority number implies higher priority. When the process is waiting for CPU in the ready queue (but not yet started execution), its priority changes at a rate a = 2. When it starts running, its priority changes at a rate b = 1. All the processes are assigned priority value 0 when they enter ready queue. Assume that the following processes want to execute :
Process            Arrival             Service
ID                    Time                Time
P1                    0                      4
P2                    1                      1
P3                    2                      2
P4                    3                      1
The time quantum q = 1. When two processes want to join ready queue simultaneously, the process which has not executed recently is given priority. The finish time of processes P1, P2, P3 and P4 will respectively be
(A) 4, 5, 7 and 8  (B) 8, 2, 7 and 5 (C) 2, 5, 7 and 8  (D) 8, 2, 5 and 7
47. The virtual address generated by a CPU is 32 bits. The Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) can hold total 64 page table entries and a 4-way set associative (i.e. with 4- cache lines in the set). The page size is 4 KB. The minimum size of TLB tag is
(A) 12 bits       (B) 15 bits       (C) 16 bits       (D) 20 bits
48. Consider a disk queue with request for input/output to block on cylinders 98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124, 65, 67 in that order. Assume that disk head is initially positioned at cylinder 53 and moving towards cylinder number 0. The total number of head movements using Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF) and SCAN algorithms are respectively
(A) 236 and 252 cylinders      (B) 640 and 236 cylinders
(C) 235 and 640 cylinders      (D) 235 and 252 cylinders
49. How much space will be required to store the bit map of a 1.3 GB disk with 512 bytes block size ?
(A) 332.8 KB  (B) 83.6 KB    (C) 266.2 KB  (D) 256.6 KB
50. Linux operating system uses
(A) Affinity Scheduling         (B) Fair Preemptive Scheduling
(C) Hand Shaking                   (D) Highest Penalty Ratio Next



UGC NET Solved Paper-II December 2013 Computer Science

1. When data and acknowledgement are sent in the same frame, this is called as
(A) Piggy packing (B) Piggy backing (C) Back packing (D) Good packing
2. Encryption and Decryption is the responsibility of _______ Layer.
(A) Physical (B) Network (C) Application (D) Datalink
3. An analog signal carries 4 bits in each signal unit. If 1000 signal units are sent per second, then baud rate and bit rate of the signal are _______ and _______.
(A) 4000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps (B) 2000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps
(C) 1000 bauds \ sec & 500 bps   (D) 1000 bauds \ sec & 4000 bps
4. The VLF and LF bauds use _______ propagation for communication.
(A) Ground (B) Sky (C) Line of sight (D) Space
5. Using the RSA public key crypto system, if p = 13, q = 31 and d = 7,then the value of e is
(A) 101 (B) 103 (C) 105 (D) 107
6. FAN IN of a component A is defined as
(A) Number of components that can call or pass control to component A.
(B) Number of components that are called by component A.
(C) Number of components related to component A.
(D) Number of components dependent on component A.
7. The relationship of data elements in a module is called
(A) Coupling (B) Modularity (C) Cohesion (D) Granularity
8. Software Configuration Management is the discipline for systematically controlling
(A) the changes due to the evolution of work products as the project proceeds.
(B) the changes due to defects (bugs) being found and then fixed.
(C) the changes due to requirement changes
(D) all of the above
9. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering ?
(A) Requirement elicitation  (B) Requirement analysis
(C) Requirement design        (D) Requirement documentation
10. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is called
(A) Alpha testing (B) Beta testing (C) Regression testing (D) None of the above
11. The student marks should not be greater than 100. This is
(A) Integrity constraint          (B) Referential constraint
(C) Over-defined constraint  (D) Feasible constraint
12. GO BOTTOM and SKIP-3 commands are given one after another in a database file of 30
records. It shifts the control to
(A) 28th record (B) 27th record (C) 3rd record (D) 4th record
13. An ER Model includes
I. An ER diagram portraying entity types.
II. Attributes for each entity type
III. Relationships among entity types.
IV. Semantic integrity constraints that reflects the business rules about data not captured in the
ER diagram.
(A) I, II, III & IV (B) I & IV (C) I, II & IV (D) I & III
14. Based on the cardinality ratio and participation ________ associated with a relationship type, choose either Foreign Key Design, the Cross Referencing Design or Mutual Referencing Design.
(A) Entity (B) Constraints (C) Rules (D) Keys
15. Data Integrity control uses _______
(A) Upper and lower limits on numeric data.
(B) Passwords to prohibit unauthorised access to files.
(C) Data dictionary to keep the data
(D) Data dictionary to find last access of data
16. What does the following declaration mean ?  int (*ptr) [10];
(A) ptr is an array of pointers of 10 integers.
(B) ptr is a pointer to an array of 10 integers.
(C) ptr is an array of 10 integers.
(D) none of the above.
17. Which of the following has compilation error in C ?
(A) int n = 32 ; (B) char ch = 65 ; (C) float f = (float) 3.2 ; (D) none of the above
18. Which of the following operators can not be overloaded in C+ + ?
(A) ∗                (B) + =            (C) = =            (D) : :
19. _________ allows to create classes which are derived from other classes, so that they automatically include some of its “parent’s” members, plus its own members.
(A) Overloading (B) Inheritance (C) Polymorphism (D) Encapsulation
20. The correct way to round off a floating number x to an integer value is
(A) y = (int) (x + 0.5)         (B) y = int (x + 0.5)
(C) y = (int) x + 0.5            (D) y = (int) ((int)x + 0.5)
21. What is the value of the postfix expression ?
a b c d + – (where a = 8, b = 4, c = 2 and d = 5)
(A) –3/8           (B) –8/3           (C) 24              (D) –24
22. If the queue is implemented with a linked list, keeping track of a front pointer and a rear pointer, which of these pointers will change during an insertion into a non-empty queue ?
(A) Neither of the pointers change (B) Only front pointer changes
(C) Only rear pointer changes        (D) Both of the pointers changes
23. _______ is often used to prove the correctness of a recursive function.
(A) Diagonalization                    (B) Communitivity
(C) Mathematical Induction        (D) Matrix Multiplication
24. For any B-tree of minimum degree t 2, every node other than the root must have atleast ________ keys and every node can have at most ________ keys.
(A) t – 1, 2t + 1  (B) t + 1, 2t + 1  (C) t – 1, 2t – 1  (D) t + 1, 2t – 1
25. Given two sorted list of size ‘m’ and ‘n’ respectively. The number of comparison needed in the worst case by the merge sort algorithm will be

(A) m × n (B) max (m, n) (C) min (m, n) (D) m + n – 1

UGC NET Solved Paper-I Dec 2013

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31. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A) Methane (B) Hydrogen (C) LPG (D) CNG
32. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A) Distance Education Council (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
33. Which of the following statements are correct about National Assessment and Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2  (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4
34. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction  (B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction    (D) Writ Jurisdiction
35. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 3 only  (B) 2 and 4 only  (C) 2, 3 and 4 only  (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
36. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission ?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of 25,000/-
4. It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
37. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN – The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States ?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
38. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be
(A) EKNJFTGP (B) EJKNFTGP (C) KNJFGTP (D) None of these
39. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is ` 7/- whereas that of a mango is ` 5/-. If the person has ` 38, the number of apples he can buy is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
40. A man pointing to a lady said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”. The lady is related to the man as
(A) Mother’s sister (B) Grand mother (C) Mother-in-law (D) Sister of Father-in-law
41. In this series
6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2,2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each ?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
42. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is
(A) 85 (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 65
43. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years  (B) 8 years  (C) 12 years  (D) 16 years
44. Which of the following is a social network ?
(A) amazon.com (B) eBay (C) gmail.com (D) Twitter
45. The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as
(A) Universe (B) Inference (C) Sampling design (D) Statistics
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 46 to 51 :
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study
of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has
done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have  demonstrated that prioritising heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand,
India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps overemphasise. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the
quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to
integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the
heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.
46. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO’s assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI’s measures to protect the monuments.
47. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration.
48. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organisations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of
awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of India’s meaningful assistance.
49. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of
protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of
protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A) 10 percent (B) 11 percent (C) 12 percent (D) 13 percent
50. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iv) (C) (i), (ii) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)
51. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full
form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
52. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punish those causing disturbance.
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance.
(D) not bother of what is happening in the class.
53. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher’s satisfaction.
(B) Teacher’s honesty and commitment.
(C) Teacher’s making students learn and understand.
(D) Teacher’s liking for professional excellence.
54. The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills   (B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment   (D) Inculcation of knowledge
55. Arrange the following teaching process in order :
(i) Relate the present knowledge with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
56. CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.
57. Teacher’s role at higher education level is to
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.
58. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social Scientists (B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians       (D) Italian Political Analysts
59. The sequential operations in scientific research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation, Generalisation, Co-variation.
60. In sampling, the lottery method is used for

(A) Interpretation (B) Theorisation (C) Conceptualisation (D) Randomisation